- Which Article of the Constitution describes India as a “Union of States”?
A. Article 1
B. Article 2
C. Article 3
D. Article 4
Answer: A. Article 1
Case Law: State of West Bengal v. Union of India (1963)
Principle: India is an indestructible Union of destructible States, emphasizing the supremacy of the Union.
2.Parliament has the power to form a new State by separating territory from an existing State under:
A. Article 2
B. Article 3
C. Article 4
D. Article 5
Answer: B. Article 3
Case Law: Babulal Parate v. State of Bombay (1960)
Principle: Parliament has wide powers to reorganize states.
3. Which Article deals with citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution?
A. Article 5
B. Article 6
C. Article 7
D. Article 8
Answer: A. Article 5
Case Law: State Trading Corporation v. CTO (1963)
Principle: Fundamental rights under Article 19 are available only to citizens.
4. Persons who migrated from Pakistan to India before 19 July 1948 are covered under:
A. Article 6
B. Article 7
C. Article 8
D. Article 9
Answer: A. Article 6
Case Law: Kulathil Mammu v. State of Kerala (1966)
5. Which Article provides that voluntarily acquiring foreign citizenship terminates Indian citizenship?
A. Article 8
B. Article 9
C. Article 10
D. Article 11
Answer: B. Article 9
Case Law: Izhar Ahmad Khan v. Union of India (1962).
6. Which Article empowers Parliament to make laws relating to citizenship?
A. Article 9
B. Article 10
C. Article 11
D. Article 12
Answer: C. Article 11
Example: Citizenship Act, 1955 enacted under this power.
7.The definition of “State” for the purpose of Fundamental Rights is given under:
A. Article 12
B. Article 13
C. Article 14
D. Article 15
Answer: A. Article 12
Case Law: Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib (1981)
Principle: Government-controlled bodies can be treated as “State”.
8. A law inconsistent with Fundamental Rights is declared void under:
A. Article 12
B. Article 13
C. Article 14
D. Article 15
Answer: B. Article 13
Case Law: Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973).
9.Which Article guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws?
A. Article 13
B. Article 14
C. Article 15
D. Article 16
Answer: B. Article 14
Case Law: E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974)
Principle: Equality is the antithesis of arbitrariness.
10. Reservation for socially and educationally backward classes is permitted under:
A. Article 14
B. Article 15(4)
C. Article 16(2)
D. Article 17
Answer: B. Article 15(4)
Case Law: State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (1951)
Led to the First Constitutional Amendment introducing Article 15(4).
11. Equality of opportunity in public employment is guaranteed under:
A. Article 15
B. Article 16
C. Article 17
D. Article 18
Answer: B. Article 16
Case Law: Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992)
Principle: Reservation in public employment is valid but generally capped at 50%.
12. The abolition of Untouchability is provided under:
A. Article 16
B. Article 17
C. Article 18
D. Article 19
Answer: B. Article 17
Case Law: State of Karnataka v. Appa Balu Ingale (1995).
13. The Constitution abolishes titles such as Rai Bahadur or Khan Bahadur under:
A. Article 17
B. Article 18
C. Article 19
D. Article 20
Answer: B. Article 18
Case Law: Balaji Raghavan v. Union of India (1996)
National awards like Padma Awards are not titles.
14. Freedom of speech and expression is guaranteed under:
A. Article 19(1)(a)
B. Article 19(1)(b)
C. Article 19(1)(c)
D. Article 21
Answer: A. Article 19(1)(a)
Case Law: Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015)
Section 66A of the IT Act was struck down.
15. The right to assemble peacefully without arms is provided under:
A. Article 19(1)(b)
B. Article 19(1)(c)
C. Article 19(1)(d)
D. Article 19(1)(g)
Answer: A. Article 19(1)(b)
Case Law: Himat Lal Shah v. Commissioner of Police (1973).
16. Protection in respect of conviction for offences is guaranteed under:
A. Article 19
B. Article 20
C. Article 21
D. Article 22
Answer: B. Article 20
Case Law: Kartar Singh v. State of Punjab (1994).
17. The right to life and personal liberty is guaranteed under:
A. Article 19
B. Article 20
C. Article 21
D. Article 22
Answer: C. Article 21
Case Law: Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)
Expanded the meaning of personal liberty.
18. The right against arbitrary arrest and detention is provided under:
A. Article 21
B. Article 22
C. Article 23
D. Article 24
Answer: B. Article 22
Case Law: A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950).
19. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour is under:
A. Article 21
B. Article 22
C. Article 23
D. Article 24
Answer: C. Article 23
Case Law: People’s Union for Democratic Rights v. Union of India (1982).
20. Freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practice and propagate religion is provided under:
A. Article 24
B. Article 25
C. Article 26
D. Article 27
Answer: B. Article 25
Case Law: Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar (1954)
Principle: Essential religious practices are protected
1. The Supreme Court of India was established on:
A. 26th January 1950
B. 28th January 1950
C. 15th August 1947
D. 1st January 1950
Answer: B
Explanation: The Supreme Court was formally inaugurated on 28th January 1950, two days after the Constitution came into effect.
2. Articles 124 to 147 of the Constitution deal with:
A. Union Executive
B. State Judiciary
C. Union Judiciary (Supreme Court)
D. High Courts
Answer: C
Explanation: Articles 124–147 lay down provisions regarding the composition, powers, and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The Supreme Court of India replaced:
A. High Court of Calcutta
B. Privy Council and Federal Court
C. Judicial Committee of the British Parliament
D. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: The Federal Court of India (1937–1950) and the Privy Council were replaced by the Supreme Court.
4. The first Chief Justice of India was:
A. M. Patanjali Sastri
B. H.J. Kania
C. M. Hidayatullah
D. B.K. Mukherjee
Answer: B
Explanation: Justice Harilal J. Kania became the first Chief Justice of India in 1950.
5. The maximum number of judges (including CJI) in the Supreme Court at present is:
A. 31
B. 34
C. 33
D. 25
Answer: B
Explanation: As per the Constitution (104th Amendment) Act, 2019, the Supreme Court consists of 34 judges including the CJI.
6. The Chief Justice of India is appointed by:
A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Law Minister
D. Collegium
Answer: B
Explanation: Under Article 124(2), the President of India appoints the CJI after consultation with judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
7. The Collegium System was established by:
A. Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976
B. Second Judges Case, 1993
C. Third Judges Case, 1998
D. NJAC Act, 2014
Answer: B
Explanation: The Second Judges Case (1993) established the Collegium System, giving primacy to the judiciary in appointments.
8. Which case reaffirmed the Collegium System by striking down NJAC?
A. S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981)
B. Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (1993)
C. NJAC Case (2015)
D. In re Presidential Reference (1998)
Answer: C
Explanation: The NJAC Case (2015) struck down the 99th Constitutional Amendment, restoring the Collegium System.
9. The Supreme Court judges retire at the age of:
A. 60 years
B. 62 years
C. 65 years
D. 68 years
Answer: C
Explanation: As per Article 124(2), the retirement age of Supreme Court judges is 65 years.
10. The removal of a Supreme Court judge is governed by:
A. Article 124(4)
B. Article 148
C. Article 50
D. Article 142
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 124(4) prescribes removal by the President on grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity, after parliamentary procedure.
11. The removal of a judge requires:
A. Simple majority in both Houses
B. Two-thirds majority in both Houses
C. Special majority in one House
D. Decision by President alone
Answer: B
Explanation: Removal requires two-thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
12. Which Article empowers the Supreme Court with original jurisdiction?
A. Article 132
B. Article 131
C. Article 136
D. Article 143
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 131 gives the Supreme Court exclusive original jurisdiction in disputes between the Centre and States.
13. Under which Article can the President seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court?
A. Article 141
B. Article 143
C. Article 147
D. Article 144
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 143 gives the President power to refer matters of public importance to the Supreme Court for advisory opinion.
14. Which Article allows the Supreme Court to enforce Fundamental Rights?
A. Article 32
B. Article 226
C. Article 14
D. Article 124
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
15. Who called Article 32 the “Heart and Soul of the Constitution”?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: C
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar referred to Article 32 as the “heart and soul of the Constitution.”
16. The Supreme Court’s appellate jurisdiction is provided under:
A. Articles 131–133
B. Articles 132–134A
C. Articles 136–137
D. Articles 144–147
Answer: B
Explanation: Articles 132–134A provide appellate jurisdiction in constitutional, civil, and criminal matters.
17. The power of judicial review is part of the:
A. Preamble
B. Directive Principles
C. Basic Structure Doctrine
D. Fundamental Duties
Answer: C
Explanation: Judicial review forms part of the Basic Structure Doctrine (Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, 1973).
18. Under which Article can the Supreme Court review its own judgment?
A. Article 136
B. Article 137
C. Article 138
D. Article 141
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 137 allows the Supreme Court to review its own judgments or orders.
19. Which of the following writs is NOT issued by the Supreme Court?
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Certiorari
C. Mandamus
D. Injunction
Answer: D
Explanation: Injunction is not a writ; it is a civil court remedy. The Supreme Court issues five writs under Article 32.
20. Which of the following statements is true about advisory jurisdiction?
A. It is binding on the President
B. It is not binding
C. It is enforceable in all cases
D. It applies only in criminal cases
Answer: B
Explanation: The Supreme Court’s advice under Article 143 is not binding on the President.
21. Which case laid down the Basic Structure Doctrine?
A. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
B. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
C. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
D. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
Answer: C
Explanation: In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), the Supreme Court held that Parliament cannot alter the basic structure of the Constitution.
22. What is the tenure of a Supreme Court judge?
A. 6 years or till 65 years
B. 5 years fixed term
C. Till 65 years of age
D. 10 years or till 70 years
Answer: C
Explanation: Judges hold office till 65 years of age or until they resign or are removed.
23. The seat of the Supreme Court is at:
A. Kolkata
B. Chennai
C. Mumbai
D. New Delhi
Answer: D
Explanation: As per Article 130, the Supreme Court sits in New Delhi.
24. The Supreme Court can transfer a case from one High Court to another under:
A. Article 139A
B. Article 132
C. Article 133
D. Article 143
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 139A empowers the Supreme Court to transfer cases between High Courts.
25. The law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on:
A. Only High Courts
B. All Courts in India
C. Subordinate Courts only
D. Parliament
Answer: B
Explanation: Under Article 141, the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts in India.
26. The Supreme Court’s decisions are delivered by:
A. President
B. Law Commission
C. Bench of Judges
D. Parliament
Answer: C
Explanation: Decisions are delivered by the bench of judges hearing the case, either by majority or unanimity.
27. The Supreme Court’s decision in Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) expanded the scope of:
A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 21
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: The judgment expanded Articles 14, 19, and 21, linking them as interrelated rights.
28. The Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction in:
A. Disputes between citizens
B. Disputes between states
C. Disputes between PM and Parliament
D. All civil disputes
Answer: B
Explanation: Under Article 131, the Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction in inter-governmental disputes.
29. The Supreme Court can issue writs under:
A. Article 32
B. Article 226
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court, whereas Article 226 empowers High Courts.
30. The Supreme Court’s curative jurisdiction was recognized in which case?
A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B. Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra (2002)
C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
D. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
Answer: B
Explanation: In Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra (2002), the Court introduced curative petitions to prevent miscarriage of justice.
1. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States?
A. Part X
B. Part XI
C. Part XII
D. Part XIII
Answer: B
Explanation: Part XI (Articles 245–255) deals with the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States.
2. The word ‘Federal’ is found in the Indian Constitution—
A. In the Preamble
B. In Article 1
C. Nowhere in the Constitution
D. In Article 3
Answer: C
Explanation: The word ‘Federal’ is not used anywhere in the Constitution, though India’s system is federal in structure.
3. India is described as a ‘Union of States’ under—
A. Article 1
B. Article 2
C. Article 3
D. Article 4
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 1 declares India as a “Union of States,” emphasizing its indestructible union of destructible states.
4. The Indian federal system is based on the model of—
A. The U.S. Constitution
B. The Canadian Constitution
C. The British Constitution
D. The Australian Constitution
Answer: B
Explanation: India adopted a federal system with a strong Centre, inspired by the Canadian model.
5. How many lists are there in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: B
Explanation: The Seventh Schedule contains three lists — Union, State, and Concurrent Lists.
6. The residuary powers of legislation are vested in—
A. Parliament
B. State Legislatures
C. Both Parliament and States
D. President of India
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 248 vests residuary powers in Parliament.
7. Which Article provides that laws made by Parliament on Concurrent List prevail over State laws in case of conflict?
A. Article 246
B. Article 254
C. Article 256
D. Article 257
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 254 states that if there is inconsistency between Central and State laws on Concurrent List subjects, Central law prevails.
8. Which Schedule of the Constitution distributes powers between the Union and the States?
A. Fifth
B. Sixth
C. Seventh
D. Ninth
Answer: C
Explanation: The Seventh Schedule contains the three legislative lists.
9. The concept of “Strong Centre” in Indian federalism was defended by—
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer: B
Explanation: Dr. Ambedkar justified a strong Centre to maintain the unity and integrity of India.
10. The Sarkaria Commission was appointed to study—
A. Centre-State relations
B. Electoral reforms
C. Judicial reforms
D. Panchayati Raj
Answer: A
Explanation: Sarkaria Commission (1983) examined and recommended improvements in Centre-State relations.
11. Which Commission later reviewed Centre-State relations after Sarkaria Commission?
A. Punchhi Commission
B. Kelkar Commission
C. Nanavati Commission
D. Mandal Commission
Answer: A
Explanation: The Punchhi Commission (2007) was set up to review Centre-State relations.
12. Under which Article can the Union give directions to the States for ensuring compliance with Central laws?
A. Article 256
B. Article 257
C. Article 258
D. Article 260
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 256 empowers the Union to give such directions.
13. Which Article deals with the administrative relations between Union and States?
A. Article 246
B. Article 256–263
C. Article 301
D. Article 324
Answer: B
Explanation: Articles 256–263 deal with administrative relations between the Union and States.
14. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Indian federalism?
A. Supremacy of the Constitution
B. Dual citizenship
C. Independent judiciary
D. Division of powers
Answer: B
Explanation: Unlike the USA, India has single citizenship.
15. Who has the power to reorganize the boundaries of states?
A. President
B. Parliament
C. Supreme Court
D. Prime Minister
Answer: B
Explanation: Parliament can alter boundaries or names of states under Article 3.
16. The Inter-State Council was set up under which Article?
A. Article 263
B. Article 280
C. Article 370
D. Article 368
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council.
17. Financial relations between Centre and States are dealt with in—
A. Part X
B. Part XI
C. Part XII
D. Part XIII
Answer: C
Explanation: Part XII (Articles 268–293) deals with financial relations.
18. The Finance Commission is constituted under which Article?
A. Article 280
B. Article 281
C. Article 282
D. Article 283
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 280 provides for the Finance Commission to recommend financial distribution between Centre and States.
19. The residuary powers were given to the Centre on the recommendation of—
A. Nehru Committee
B. Constituent Assembly
C. Government of India Act, 1935
D. None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: The Government of India Act, 1935, first vested residuary powers in the Governor-General; India adopted this model for the Centre.
20. Which case defined the Indian Constitution as “federal but with a strong unitary bias”?
A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B. State of West Bengal v. Union of India
C. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
D. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
Answer: B
Explanation: The Supreme Court in State of West Bengal v. Union of India (1963) held that India is not a traditional federation but quasi-federal.
21. The basic structure doctrine includes federalism as a basic feature. This was held in—
A. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
B. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Answer: B
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati (1973) held federalism as part of the basic structure.
22. The term “Cooperative Federalism” refers to—
A. States acting independently
B. Equal power to Centre and States
C. Coordination between Centre and States
D. Division of Judiciary
Answer: C
Explanation: Cooperative federalism emphasizes mutual coordination for national development.
23. Which Article allows financial assistance by the Union to any State for public purposes?
A. Article 275
B. Article 280
C. Article 282
D. Article 293
Answer: C
Explanation: Article 282 allows discretionary grants by the Union for public purposes.
24. During National Emergency, India becomes—
A. Completely federal
B. Unitary in nature
C. Semi-federal
D. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: During Emergency (Article 352), the federal structure becomes unitary.
25. Who resolves disputes between Centre and States?
A. Parliament
B. Supreme Court
C. President
D. Prime Minister
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 131 gives the Supreme Court original jurisdiction in Centre-State disputes.
26. Which Article allows Parliament to legislate for two or more States by consent?
A. Article 252
B. Article 253
C. Article 254
D. Article 255
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 252 empowers Parliament to make laws applicable to consenting States.
27. Which case emphasized the concept of cooperative federalism in India?
A. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
B. State of Rajasthan v. Union of India
C. Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India
D. None of these
Answer: A
Explanation: S.R. Bommai (1994) emphasized federalism as a basic structure and promoted cooperative federalism.
28. In India, the Constitution can be described as—
A. Rigid
B. Flexible
C. Partly rigid and partly flexible
D. None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: Some provisions require a special majority, others a simple majority—hence, it’s partly rigid and partly flexible.
29. Which entry relates to ‘Public Order’ in the State List?
A. Entry 1
B. Entry 2
C. Entry 3
D. Entry 4
Answer: A
Explanation: Entry 1 of the State List deals with “Public Order.”
30. The distribution of powers in Indian Constitution is mainly based on—
A. American Constitution
B. Australian Constitution
C. Government of India Act, 1935
D. Canadian Constitution
Answer: C
Explanation: The distribution of powers between Centre and States is primarily derived from the Government of India Act, 1935.
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1. How many types of Emergencies are provided under the Constitution of India?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: B. Three
Explanation: The Constitution provides for three types of Emergencies — (1) National Emergency (Art. 352), (2) State Emergency / President’s Rule (Art. 356), and (3) Financial Emergency (Art. 360).
2. Under which Part of the Indian Constitution are the Emergency provisions included?
A. Part XVIII
B. Part XVII
C. Part XIX
D. Part XV
Answer: A. Part XVIII
Explanation: Emergency provisions are enshrined under Part XVIII (Articles 352 to 360) of the Constitution of India.
3. The term “internal disturbance” in Article 352 was replaced by which term?
A. Civil war
B. Internal rebellion
C. Armed rebellion
D. Insurrection
Answer: C. Armed rebellion
Explanation: The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 replaced the term “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion” to limit the misuse of Emergency powers.
4. Which Article empowers the President to declare a National Emergency?
A. Article 350
B. Article 352
C. Article 356
D. Article 360
Answer: B. Article 352
Explanation: Article 352 provides for a National Emergency when there is war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
5. Who recommends the proclamation of a National Emergency to the President?
A. Prime Minister alone
B. Union Cabinet
C. Parliament
D. Council of States
Answer: B. Union Cabinet
Explanation: After the 44th Amendment, the President must act on a written recommendation of the Union Cabinet, not merely the Prime Minister.
6. During the proclamation of a National Emergency, which right cannot be suspended under Article 359?
A. Article 19
B. Article 21
C. Article 22
D. Article 14
Answer: B. Article 21
Explanation: After the 44th Amendment, Article 20 (Protection in criminal offences) and Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) cannot be suspended even during an Emergency.
7. How long can the National Emergency continue after its first approval by Parliament?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. Indefinitely
Answer: B. 6 months
Explanation: The National Emergency remains in operation for 6 months at a time but can be extended indefinitely with parliamentary approval every six months.
8. Which amendment restricted the power of the Centre to declare Emergency on vague grounds?
A. 42nd Amendment
B. 43rd Amendment
C. 44th Amendment
D. 46th Amendment
Answer: C. 44th Amendment
Explanation: The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 introduced crucial safeguards, including requiring Cabinet approval and replacing “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion.”
9. During a National Emergency, India’s system becomes more:
A. Unitary
B. Federal
C. Confederal
D. Parliamentary
Answer: A. Unitary
Explanation: In an Emergency, the Centre assumes greater powers, making India function more like a unitary state.
10. Which Fundamental Right was suspended during the 1975 Emergency?
A. Right to Property
B. Right to Freedom (Article 19)
C. Right against Exploitation
D. Right to Education
Answer: B. Right to Freedom (Article 19)
Explanation: During the 1975 Emergency, Article 19 rights were suspended under Article 358.
11. Which Article deals with the failure of constitutional machinery in a State?
A. Article 355
B. Article 356
C. Article 357
D. Article 358
Answer: B. Article 356
Explanation: Article 356 provides that if the President is satisfied that a State government cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution, he can assume control.
12. President’s Rule is also known as:
A. Judicial Emergency
B. State Emergency
C. Administrative Emergency
D. Political Emergency
Answer: B. State Emergency
Explanation: President’s Rule is also referred to as State Emergency, declared under Article 356.
13. How long can President’s Rule continue without parliamentary approval?
A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. 3 months
D. 6 months
Answer: B. 2 months
Explanation: A proclamation under Article 356 must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within 2 months.
14. What is the maximum period for which President’s Rule can remain in operation?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 6 months
Answer: C. 3 years
Explanation: President’s Rule can continue for a maximum of 3 years with parliamentary approval every 6 months, but extension beyond one year requires conditions like national emergency and EC certification.
15. Which Article empowers the President to declare a Financial Emergency?
A. Article 358
B. Article 360
C. Article 359
D. Article 361
Answer: B. Article 360
Explanation: Article 360 empowers the President to declare a Financial Emergency if the financial stability of India or any part is threatened.
16. How many times has Financial Emergency been declared in India till date?
A. Once
B. Twice
C. Never
D. Thrice
Answer: C. Never
Explanation: No Financial Emergency has been declared in India since 1950.
17. Which Article deals with the suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency?
A. Article 355
B. Article 358 and 359
C. Article 360
D. Article 361
Answer: B. Article 358 and 359
Explanation: Article 358 suspends the freedoms under Article 19, and Article 359 allows suspension of enforcement of other rights (except 20 & 21).
18. In which year was the first National Emergency declared in India?
A. 1957
B. 1962
C. 1965
D. 1971
Answer: B. 1962
Explanation: The first National Emergency was declared in 1962 during the Indo-China War.
19. The 1975 National Emergency was declared on the grounds of:
A. War
B. External Aggression
C. Internal Disturbance
D. Armed Rebellion
Answer: C. Internal Disturbance
Explanation: The 1975 Emergency was proclaimed on the ground of “internal disturbance,” which was later replaced by “armed rebellion.”
20. Which Prime Minister recommended the 1975 Emergency?
A. Lal Bahadur Shastri
B. Indira Gandhi
C. Morarji Desai
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: B. Indira Gandhi
Explanation: Indira Gandhi recommended the declaration of Emergency in 1975.
21. Which case upheld the proclamation of the 1975 Emergency?
A. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
B. ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
C. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Answer: B. ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
Explanation: In ADM Jabalpur (1976), the Supreme Court upheld the suspension of the right to life and personal liberty during Emergency — later criticized as a dark chapter in constitutional law.
22. Which Judge gave a famous dissent in ADM Jabalpur case?
A. Justice Beg
B. Justice H.R. Khanna
C. Justice Ray
D. Justice Chandrachud
Answer: B. Justice H.R. Khanna
Explanation: Justice H.R. Khanna’s dissent held that even during an Emergency, the right to life and liberty cannot be taken away.
23. Which case made the proclamation of President’s Rule subject to judicial review?
A. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
B. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
C. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
Answer: B. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
Explanation: The Supreme Court in S.R. Bommai (1994) held that Article 356 proclamations are justiciable and cannot be used for political misuse.
24. Under Article 360, what can the President do during Financial Emergency?
A. Reduce salaries of all employees including judges
B. Suspend all Fundamental Rights
C. Dissolve Lok Sabha
D. Dismiss all Governors
Answer: A. Reduce salaries of all employees including judges
Explanation: During Financial Emergency, the President can direct reduction in salaries of government employees and judges to maintain stability.
25. Which Amendment introduced safeguards for Emergency proclamation?
A. 42nd Amendment
B. 44th Amendment
C. 52nd Amendment
D. 56th Amendment
Answer: B. 44th Amendment
Explanation: The 44th Amendment (1978) introduced safeguards like Cabinet concurrence and periodic review by Parliament.
26. How many times has National Emergency been declared in India?
A. Two times
B. Three times
C. Four times
D. Five times
Answer: B. Three times
Explanation: National Emergency was declared three times — 1962, 1971, and 1975.
27. Which Article allows Parliament to make laws for the entire country during a National Emergency?
A. Article 249
B. Article 250
C. Article 252
D. Article 253
Answer: B. Article 250
Explanation: Under Article 250, Parliament can make laws on subjects in the State List during a National Emergency.
28. When was the 44th Constitutional Amendment passed?
A. 1976
B. 1977
C. 1978
D. 1979
Answer: C. 1978
Explanation: The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 was enacted to restore constitutional balance after the 1975 Emergency.
29. Under which Article does the duty of the Union to protect States from external aggression fall?
A. Article 353
B. Article 355
C. Article 356
D. Article 357
Answer: B. Article 355
Explanation: Article 355 imposes a duty on the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance.
30. During the Emergency, who has the final authority to approve continuation beyond six months?
A. Parliament
B. Supreme Court
C. Prime Minister
D. President
Answer: A. Parliament
Explanation: The continuation of Emergency beyond six months requires approval of both Houses of Parliament by a special majority.
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1. Which Article vests legislative powers in Parliament and State Legislatures?
A. Article 245
B. Article 246
C. Article 247
D. Article 248
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 246 provides the distribution of powers between Parliament and State Legislatures via the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists.
2. Article 245 of the Constitution relates to—
A. Directive Principles
B. Legislative powers
C. Fundamental Rights
D. Emergency provisions
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 245(1) empowers Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of India and State Legislatures for their state.
3. The Union List is mentioned in which Schedule?
A. Fifth Schedule
B. Sixth Schedule
C. Seventh Schedule
D. Eighth Schedule
Answer: C
Explanation: Seventh Schedule contains Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
4. Which Article gives residuary powers to Parliament?
A. Article 248
B. Article 249
C. Article 250
D. Article 254
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 248 allows Parliament to legislate on subjects not enumerated in any list (residuary powers).
5. Which of the following is a State List subject?
A. Defense
B. Banking
C. Police
D. Foreign affairs
Answer: C
Explanation: Police is a state subject; defense, banking, and foreign affairs are Union List subjects.
6. Both Union and States can legislate on which list?
A. Union List
B. State List
C. Concurrent List
D. Residuary List
Answer: C
Explanation: Concurrent List subjects (e.g., education, criminal law) can be legislated by both, but Union law prevails in case of conflict (Article 254).
7. Parliament can legislate on State subjects during national interest if—
A. President orders
B. Lok Sabha passes resolution
C. Rajya Sabha passes resolution by two-thirds majority
D. Supreme Court permits
Answer: C
Explanation: Article 249 allows Parliament to legislate on State List subjects during national interest via Rajya Sabha resolution.
8. Parliament can legislate for two or more states by consent under which Article?
A. Article 249
B. Article 252
C. Article 253
D. Article 254
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 252 allows such legislation when states consent.
9. Parliament may legislate on State subjects to implement international treaties under—
A. Article 249
B. Article 252
C. Article 253
D. Article 254
Answer: C
Explanation: Article 253 empowers Parliament to implement international agreements even on State subjects.
10. During President’s Rule, who legislates for the State?
A. State Legislature
B. Parliament
C. President
D. Supreme Court
Answer: B
Explanation: Under Article 356, Parliament can legislate for a State when President’s Rule is imposed.
11. The doctrine of pith and substance determines—
A. Territorial jurisdiction
B. True nature of law
C. Legislative competence of Parliament
D. State emergency powers
Answer: B
Explanation: It examines the true substance of legislation to validate it even if it incidentally touches other subjects.
12. Colourable legislation means—
A. Legislation that changes color
B. Circumventing constitutional limits indirectly
C. Law passed by state under consent
D. Law on international matters
Answer: B
Explanation: Colourable legislation occurs when a legislature does indirectly what it cannot do directly.
13. Doctrine of Territorial Nexus allows legislation—
A. Only within state
B. Across states if connected materially
C. Only by Parliament
D. Only for Union List subjects
Answer: B
Explanation: Sufficient connection (nexus) with the state validates law beyond territorial limits.
14. In case of conflict in the Concurrent List, which law prevails?
A. State law
B. Union law
C. Ordinance
D. President’s Rule
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 254(1) gives precedence to Union law in case of conflict on concurrent subjects.
15. Which of the following is a Union List subject?
A. Public health
B. Forests
C. Defense
D. Police
Answer: C
Explanation: Defense is exclusively under Union jurisdiction.
16. The State List is under which Article?
A. Article 245
B. Article 246(2)
C. Article 247
D. Article 248
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 246(2) empowers State Legislatures to legislate on State List subjects.
17. Which case applied pith and substance doctrine?
A. K.C. Gajapati Narayan Deo v. Orissa
B. State of Bombay v. R.M.D. Chamarbaugwala
C. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
D. R.C. Cooper v. Union of India
Answer: B
Explanation: The Court examined the true nature of law (betting tax) to determine validity.
18. Which case applied colourable legislation doctrine?
A. K.C. Gajapati Narayan Deo v. Orissa
B. State of Bombay v. Chamarbaugwala
C. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
D. R.K. Garg v. Union of India
Answer: A
Explanation: State attempted to tax petroleum (Union subject); law struck down as colourable.
19. Which doctrine allows incidental touching of another subject?
A. Territorial nexus
B. Pith and substance
C. Colourable legislation
D. Residuary power
Answer: B
Explanation: Pith and substance allows incidental touching of subjects outside legislative competence.
20. Parliament cannot legislate on State subjects—
A. Under Article 249
B. Without Rajya Sabha resolution
C. Under Article 252
D. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 249 requires two-thirds Rajya Sabha resolution to legislate on State subjects in national interest.
21. Which Article resolves conflict between Union and State law on concurrent subjects?
A. Article 248
B. Article 249
C. Article 254
D. Article 256
Answer: C
Explanation: Article 254 deals with inconsistency on concurrent subjects.
22. Doctrine of territorial nexus was applied in—
A. State of Bihar v. Sm. Charusila Dasi
B. K.C. Gajapati Narayan Deo
C. R.K. Garg v. Union of India
D. State of Bombay v. Chamarbaugwala
Answer: A
Explanation: Law valid outside state boundaries due to sufficient connection.
23. State legislatures can legislate on Union List subjects—
A. Always
B. Never
C. Only during national emergency
D. Only with presidential permission
Answer: B
Explanation: State cannot legislate on Union List except under Articles 249–253 exceptions.
24. Residuary subjects are legislated by—
A. State Legislature
B. Parliament
C. President
D. Supreme Court
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 248 grants residuary powers to Parliament.
25. Education is on which list?
A. Union List
B. State List
C. Concurrent List
D. Residuary List
Answer: C
Explanation: Education is on the Concurrent List.
26. Forests fall under which legislative list?
A. Union List
B. State List
C. Concurrent List
D. Residuary
Answer: B
Explanation: Forests are predominantly State subject.
27. Which Article allows Parliament to legislate during President’s Rule?
A. Article 356
B. Article 252
C. Article 249
D. Article 248
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 356 allows Parliament to legislate when President’s Rule is in force.
28. Union List has how many subjects approximately?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 61
D. 52
Answer: B
Explanation: Union List contains 100 subjects.
29. Concurrent List subjects can be legislated by—
A. Parliament only
B. States only
C. Both Parliament and States
D. President
Answer: C
Explanation: Both Union and States can legislate; Union prevails on conflict.
30. Which doctrine ensures laws beyond territorial limits are valid if connected materially?
A. Pith and substance
B. Colourable legislation
C. Territorial nexus
D. Residuary
Answer: C
Explanation: Doctrine of territorial nexus validates laws outside state territory if sufficiently connected.
1. The President of India is established under which Article?
A. Article 50
B. Article 52
C. Article 53
D. Article 74
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 52 creates the office of the President of India.
2. Executive power of the Union is vested in the President under which Article?
A. Article 52
B. Article 53
C. Article 74
D. Article 75
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 53(1) vests the executive power of the Union in the President.
3. Which Article provides for the President’s power to grant pardons and reprieves?
A. Article 123
B. Article 111
C. Article 72
D. Article 74
Answer: C
Explanation: Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons, respites, reprieves, or remissions.
4. The President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers under which Article?
A. Article 72
B. Article 74
C. Article 75
D. Article 76
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 74(1) provides for the President to act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
5. Who appoints the Prime Minister?
A. Parliament
B. President
C. Supreme Court
D. Vice-President
Answer: B
Explanation: Under Article 75(1), the President appoints the Prime Minister, who commands majority support in Lok Sabha.
6. The President’s ordinance-making power is under which Article?
A. Article 123
B. Article 110
C. Article 111
D. Article 356
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 123 allows the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session.
7. Ordinances issued by the President—
A. Can be permanent law
B. Must be approved by Parliament within 6 weeks of reassembly
C. Cannot be converted into law
D. Can be issued without any limits
Answer: B
Explanation: Ordinances lapse if not approved by Parliament within six weeks of resumption of session.
8. The President can return a Bill for reconsideration except—
A. Ordinary Bills
B. Money Bills
C. Financial Bills
D. Constitutional Amendment Bills
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 111 allows the President to return Bills except Money Bills.
9. Judicial review over ordinances was reaffirmed in—
A. R.C. Cooper v. Union of India (1970)
B. Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C. S.R. Bommai (1994)
D. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975)
Answer: A
Explanation: The Court held that presidential satisfaction under Article 123 is reviewable by judiciary.
10. The repeated re-promulgation of ordinances was declared unconstitutional in—
A. D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1987)
B. R.K. Garg v. Union of India (1981)
C. Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar (2017)
D. Both A & C
Answer: D
Explanation: Both cases condemned re-promulgation as abuse of ordinance power.
11. Under Article 74(2), courts cannot inquire into—
A. President’s assent to Bills
B. Material on which advice is given
C. Advice tendered by ministers
D. Ordinance promulgation
Answer: C
Explanation: Article 74(2) bars courts from inquiring what advice was given, not the material behind it.
12. Presidential clemency is reviewable when—
A. Arbitrary or mala fide
B. In all cases
C. Never
D. Only for death sentences
Answer: A
Explanation: Courts can review clemency if it is arbitrary, mala fide or surreptitiously obtained (Epuru Sudhakar v. Govt. of AP, 2006).
13. Who decides the President’s satisfaction regarding necessity of an ordinance?
A. Parliament
B. Prime Minister
C. Supreme Court (subject to review)
D. Election Commission
Answer: C
Explanation: While the President exercises satisfaction, judicial review is allowed to ensure legality and necessity (R.C. Cooper).
14. The President summons Parliament under—
A. Article 85
B. Article 123
C. Article 72
D. Article 111
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 85(1) empowers the President to summon and prorogue Parliament.
15. Who assists the President in the exercise of discretionary powers?
A. Vice-President
B. Prime Minister & Council of Ministers
C. Supreme Court
D. Election Commission
Answer: B
Explanation: Except in rare cases of discretion, the Council of Ministers aids and advises the President (Article 74).
16. Maximum duration of ordinance validity without parliamentary approval—
A. 30 days
B. 6 weeks from reassembly
C. 3 months
D. 1 year
Answer: B
Explanation: Ordinances lapse 6 weeks after Parliament reconvenes if not approved.
17. Who appoints governors and other constitutional authorities?
A. Supreme Court
B. Parliament
C. President (on advice of Cabinet)
D. Prime Minister
Answer: C
Explanation: The President appoints constitutional authorities under Article 153 & others, on Cabinet advice.
18. Presidential assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill is—
A. Optional
B. Mandatory
C. Conditional
D. Discretionary
Answer: B
Explanation: The President must give assent to a constitutional amendment (Article 368).
19. Emergency powers of the President are provided under—
A. Article 356–360
B. Article 123–124
C. Article 72–74
D. Article 110–112
Answer: A
Explanation: Articles 352–360 deal with proclamation of national, state, and financial emergencies.
20. Which Article bars courts from reviewing the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers?
A. Article 74(1)
B. Article 74(2)
C. Article 123
D. Article 72
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 74(2) bars inquiry into the content of ministerial advice.
21. Presidential discretion exists mainly in—
A. Routine appointments
B. Dissolution of Lok Sabha in hung Parliament
C. Giving assent to Money Bills
D. Ordinance promulgation
Answer: B
Explanation: President exercises discretion in hung Lok Sabha scenarios and appointments when aid/advice is ambiguous.
22. Which case clarified limits on ordinance-making?
A. Krishna Kumar Singh v. Bihar (2017)
B. Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975)
D. S.R. Bommai (1994)
Answer: A
Explanation: Supreme Court ruled against unfettered re-promulgation of ordinances.
23. The President can return which Bills for reconsideration?
A. Money Bills
B. Financial Bills
C. Ordinary Bills
D. Both B & C
Answer: C
Explanation: Only Ordinary Bills may be returned under Article 111.
24. The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha—
A. Anytime
B. On advice of Prime Minister
C. By independent discretion
D. Only after Parliamentary approval
Answer: B
Explanation: The President dissolves Lok Sabha on the Cabinet’s advice (Article 85).
25. Ordinances are issued when—
A. Parliament is in session
B. Parliament is not in session and immediate action is necessary
C. For routine legislation
D. Only during emergencies
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 123 limits ordinances to urgent legislative needs when Parliament is not sitting.
26. Which of the following is true about ordinance power?
A. Can be used to bypass legislative process permanently
B. Temporary measure with oversight
C. President exercises absolute discretion
D. Cannot be challenged in courts
Answer: B
Explanation: Ordinance power is temporary and subject to judicial review (R.C. Cooper; D.C. Wadhwa).
27. The term of the President of India is—
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years
Answer: B
Explanation: Under Article 56(1), the President serves for five years.
28. Who decides on the constitutional validity of a President’s ordinance?
A. Parliament
B. President
C. Supreme Court
D. Prime Minister
Answer: C
Explanation: The Supreme Court may review ordinances for legality and necessity (R.C. Cooper).
29. The President’s power to pardon extends to—
A. Death sentence only
B. Civil cases
C. Criminal offences under Union law
D. Both B & C
Answer: C
Explanation: Article 72 applies to criminal offences under Union law, including capital punishment.
30. The President acts as the formal head of the Union—
A. Legislative branch only
B. Executive branch only
C. Both legislative and executive branches
D. Judicial branch only
Answer: C
Explanation: The President is the formal head of the Union’s executive and plays a legislative role (assent to Bills, ordinances, summoning Parliament).
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